by Edip Yuksel

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Why do you abuse and  ignore Biblical verses?
In this chapter we will examine some verses which have  been
abused  by  the  clergy  in order to support their corrupted
teachings. Even though we assume the following verses to  be
the  original  words  of  Jesus,  the  traditional  meanings
ascribed to them  and  conclusions  derived  from  them  are
merely biased interpretations and personal imaginations.
                                                John 8:57,58
"Then  said  the  Jews unto him, You are not yet fifty years
old, and you  have  seen  Abraham?  Jesus  said  unto  them,
Verily, verily, I say unto you, before Abraham was, I am."
The  clergy  asserts  that  this verse provides the evidence
that Jesus claimed his deity. However, this is far away from
the truth. This verse cannot provide any status of deity for
Jesus. According to  the  Bible,  all  the  human  race  was
created  before  the  creation  of earth. Solomon, Jeremiah,
also share pre-existence with Jesus (Proverbs  8:22-27;  Jer
1:4,5).  The  speculation on "I am" is not worthy to discuss
here. It is an ordinary "I am," as "you are."
                                                    John 1:1
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word  was  with  God
and the Word was God."
"So,  Jesus  is  God"  concludes clergymen after quoting the
above verse.
We cannot agree for two reasons, at least:
1.  These are not the words of Jesus himself. They are not
    the words of John either. Objective Christian scholars
    acknowledge that they are the words of Philo of
    Alexandria, who lived before Jesus was born.
    Thus, it is a quotation without reference.
2.  The capital letters in the translation are misleading.
    The word "God" which occurs twice are not the same in
    the Greek manuscripts. The first one is "Hotheos" which
    can be translated as "The god" or "God," the second one
    is "Tontheos" which can be translated as "a god" or "god".
The abuse of capital letters, commas,  and  full  stops  are
widespread  in  translations.  For  instance, the Greek word
"Hotheos" (God) occurs twice in 2 Corinthians. However,  the
English translations  distinguish  them by  the manipulation
of capital letters.
                                                  John 20:28
"Thomas said in response, 'My Lord and my God!'"
Although we know that John  is  the  latest  and  the  least
authentic  Gospel  (see  Question  3), we assume that Thomas
told Jesus, "My Lord and my God!"
Before evaluating this verse,  let's  summarize  the  common
clergy approach by quoting from Josh Mc Dowel & Bart Larson:
"There is no mistaking that Thomas's words were addressed to
Jesus. Thomas used both titles to express his  understanding
of  Christ's deity and lordship. Jesus did not rebuke Thomas
for blasphemy. Instead, He accepted those titles of  deity."
(Jesus: A Biblical Defence of His Deity, p 27).
However,  if  we  read the context (from the verse 24 to 30)
the case is very different.  After burial of Jesus, his body
disappears.  Then  Jesus appears to Mary Magdalene and other
disciples except Thomas, one of the Twelve (John 20:24).  He
hears  the  resurrection story and says, "I will not believe
it." (20:24). Please note  that  the  topic  is  not  Jesus'
deity,  it is his resurrection. So, he says that he does not
believe "it", that is, the story. A week later Jesus appears
to  him  physically and Thomas is in a great excitement: "My
God, my Lord!" are the words he could  utter.  He  does  not
say,  "You  are  my God and my Lord." His words are ordinary
words that all of us use frequently  in  our  life  when  we
witness an incredible event.
The  identity  of  the  utterer  of these words also refutes
clergy's interpretation. A stranger, or a disbeliever is not
saying  these  words.  He  is  Thomas,  one  of  the few who
followed Christ to death: "Then Thomas said to the  rest  of
the disciples, 'Let us also go, that we may die with him.' "
(John 11: 16). If this very Thomas did not believe Jesus and
"his  deity,"  until  after  his  death,  then  why  was  he
following him? What kind of disciple was he  that  he  could
not  understand  the  most  important  message, which caused
Christ's crucifixion? Was he a retarded disciple?
There is another option: he understood Jesus,  but  did  not
believe  him. Apparently, the clergy opt this alternative by
claiming that Thomas finally believed Jesus' deity after his
resurrection.  According  to this theory, Thomas was another
hypocrite among the disciples besides Judas Iscariot.  Judas
made  money. But, why did Thomas act as a believer until the
crucifixion of Jesus? Why was he saying, 'Let  us  also  go,
that we may die with him'?
There  are  many  other  problems  related  to  the story of
resurrection. The obvious contradictions between the Gospels
and  "their  disjointed,  blurred  and disordered character"
(Father Roguet, Initiation a l'Evangile, p.  182)  need  our
attention which is beyond the scope of this book.
                                                  John 10:30
"I and my Father are one."
This verse is one of the most abused verses in the Bible. We
assume  that  Jesus  Christ  uttered  this   statement.   To
understand  the  intention  and purpose of this statement we
have to look at its context. If we  read  verses  24  to  39
carefully,  we  will  find  out  that  this  unity is not in
Nature, neither in Omniscience, nor in Omnipotence; it is in
purpose. Sure, Jesus and God were one in purpose as stated:
"The  one  who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone,
for I always do what pleases him." (John 8:29).
The simple-minded Pharisees and their followers were looking
for  excuses to accuse Jesus of blasphemy. They were not the
people who were willing to understand Jesus:
"This is why I speak to them  in  parables:  Though  seeing,
they  do  not  see;  though  hearing,  they  do  not hear or
understand." (Matthew 13:13).
Ironically,  clergymen  present  the  Pharisee's   mind   as
criteria  for  interpretation  of  Jesus'  words. But, Jesus
sarcastically rejects this logic (John 10:33), by  reminding
them  of the usage of word "gods" in the Old Testament (John
10:34-36). Jesus refers to Psalm 82:6 which reads:  "I  have
said  you  are gods; and all of you are children of the most
High." Jesus, after reminding them of the  usage  of  "gods"
for good men in their own scripture, now asks them:
"Why  then  do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I
am God's son'?" (John 10:36).
The Bible teaches us that Jesus is not unique to be "one  in
the Father." The verses below explains John 10:30 clearly:
"My  prayer is not for them alone. I pray also for those who
will believe in me through their message, that all  of  them
may  be  one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you.
May they also be in us so that the world  may  believe  that
you have sent me."
"I have given them the glory that you gave me, that they may
be one as we are one: I in them and you in me. May  they  be
brought  to  complete  unity  to let the world know that you
sent me and have loved them even  as  you  have  loved  me."
(John 17:20-23).
As an answer to one of my articles published in a newsletter
questioning the doctrine of Trinity,  I  received  a  letter
from  the  American Bible Society, New York. The back of the
letter was filled with references to the verses of  the  Old
Testament    in    order    to   support   the   traditional
misinterpretations on John 10:30.
So, let's see what those abused verses by Trinitarians  are?
We will evaluate two of them.
                                                 Isaiah 7:14
"Therefore  the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold a
virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and  shall  call  his
name Immanuel."
Immanuel  means  "God  with  us". Obviously, it doesn't mean
"This is God," or "God". In Jewish tradition it  was  common
to  name  a  child  or  a  place  with a phrase reminding or
praising God. For instance, the place where  David  defeated
Philistines  was  called  Baal Perazim, which means The Lord
Who Breaks Out (1 Chronicles 14:11). David's wife named  her
son  Samuel,  which  means  Heard  of  God  (1 Samuel 1:20).
Solomon's other name Jedidah means  Loved  by  the  Lord  (2
Samuel 12:25)...
                                                  Isaiah 9:6
"For  to  us  a child is born, to us a son is given, and the
government will be on his shoulders. And he will  be  called
Wonderful  Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince
of Peace."
The long name is  deliberately  mistranslated  in  order  to
justify   the   deity   of  Jesus.  The  Hebrew  words  are:
Pele-joez-el-gibbor-Abi-ad-sar-shalom.      The      correct
translation  of  this long name: Wonderful in counsel is God
the Mighty, the Everlasting Father, the Ruler of Peace.
Evidently, the correct translation does not leave  room  for
an  incarnated  god.  It is another praising phrase commonly
used in those days. Furthermore, this verse has  nothing  to
do  with  Jesus.  It  is  about  a contemporary person, most
likely, Hezekiah.
                                          The ignored verses
From the New Testament and the Final Testament as  well,  we
learn  that  Jesus  was  a human messenger of God whose sole
mission was to deliver God's message. The  following  verses
are  only  a  sample  of  many  Biblical  verses  which  are
deliberately ignored by the clergy:
"I cannot do anything of myself. I judge as I hear,  and  my
judgment  is honest because I am not seeking my own will but
the will of Him who sent me." (John 5:30).
"Jesus said: 'My doctrine is not my own; it comes  from  Him
who sent me.'" (John 7:16).
"...   If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to
the Father, for the Father is greater than I." (John 14:28).
"As Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him  and  fell
on  his  knees  before  him. 'Good teacher,' he asked, 'what
must I do to inherit eternal life?' Jesus answered, 'Why  do
you  call me good? No one is good--except God alone.'" (Mark
10:17-18; Matthew 19:16-17; Luke 18:18-19).
"Whoever welcomes me welcomes, not me, but Him who sent me."
(Matthew 10:40; Mark 9:37; Luke 9:48 & John 13:20).
"...  I  have  not come of myself. I was sent by One who has
the right to send, and Him you  do  not  know.  I  know  Him
because it is from Him I come; he sent me." (John 7:28-29).
"'The most important one,' answered Jesus, 'is this: Hear, O
Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one.' " (Mark 12:29).
"None of those who call me 'Lord' will enter the kingdom  of
God,  but  only  the  one  who does the will of my Father in
heaven." (Matthew 7:21).
"... Go to my brothers and tell them, 'I am ascending to  my
Father  and  your  Father,  to my God and your God.' " (John
                              The real source of the Trinity
Then,  why  do  the  clergy  preach  the  Trinity?  Why   do
Christendom  not  pay  attention to the whole Old Testament,
and  the  majority  of  the  New  Testament?  Here  are  the
so-called   defense  of  two  self-appointed  lawyers.  They
exhibit such a clumsy  defense  that  they  blunder  in  the
following statements:
"This  discussion  can  get complicated, depending on what a
person has been taught. Arguments can be made both  for  and
against  the  deity  of Christ. For example, if one has been
taught that God is one person and that Jesus  is  a  created
being, then  on  first reading, Bible verses can be found to
support that view. On the other hand, if one has been taught
that  God  is  one  supreme being comprised Father, Son, and
Holy Spirit, and that  the  Son  gave  up  His  position  of
equality within the godhead to become a man in the person of
Jesus, then Scripture passages can be found to support  that
view."  (Jesus A Biblical Defence of His Diety, Josh McDowel
& Bart Larson, Campus Crusade for Christ, California, p. 15)
Here are two Trinitarian Christian slipping up the source of
the  three  equal godhead. If we cannot get the Trinity from
the Bible,  then  which  authority  will  teach  it  to  us?
Besides,  The  Old  Testament  does  not  preach  God  being
comprised of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
Here are the questions:
1.  What can be the sources for the teachings of monotheism,
    and trinitarianism?
2.  Why do you use John 8:57-58 as a Biblical evidence for
    the deity of Jesus? Do Jeremiah, Solomon, Job also not
    share pre-existence with Jesus
    (Jer 1:4,5; Proverbs 8:22-26; Job 38:21)?
3.  According to Greek manuscripts, "the Word was God"
    (John 1:1) should be translated as "the word was god."
    Why do you abuse the capital letters?
4.  Why do you use a small "g" for "God" when referring
    to Moses (Exodus 7:1) instead of a capital "G" as you
    do for a mere word -'WORD'- (John 1:1)?
    Why do you play fast and loose with the Word of God?
5.  Why do you claim that Thomas did not believe Jesus
    until he saw him resurrected? Did he not witness many
    of his miracles? Did he not follow him despite all
    the risks? Wasn't he the bravest of all disciples who
    suggested 'Let us also go, that we may die with him.' "
    (John 11: 16)?  What was the topic in John 20:28
    that made him say "My Lord and my God!"?
    Was the topic the deity of Jesus, or his resurrection?
    Why didn't he say "You are my Lord and my God"?
    Do we not say "My God!" with excitement when we
    encounter an incredible event?
6.  The word "God" can be an insertion by the translators
    into John 20:28. Assuming this probability we can ask
    the following question: The title "lord" is used for
    humans throughout the Bible as well as for God.
    For instance, "Do not be angry, my lord," says Aaron
    to Moses in Exodus 32:22. Since we know that Hebrew and
    Greek do not have capital letters, what made you write
    the "lord" in John 20:28 as "Lord"?
7.  Why do you take  John 10:30 out of context?
    When Jesus told Jews that "I and my Father are one."
    he was obviously telling them that they are one in
    purpose. Why do you ignore the verses which clarify
    its meaning such as  "... that they may be one as we
    are one: I in them and you in me" (John 17: 23 & 8:29)?
8.  You speculate on the name "Immanuel" in Isaiah 7:14
    in order to create an incarnated god. Then, why do you
    ignore similar names, such as Baal Perazim
    (1 Chronicles 14:11) and Samuel (1 Samuel 1:20).
9.  Why do you mistranslate the long name in Isaiah 9:6?
    What is your reason of not accepting it for
    a contemporary person?
10. Why do you ignore numerous verses which leave no room
    for Trinity, and the deity of Jesus?

Moslem Questions on Christianity Edip Yuksel P.O. Box 43476, Tucson, AZ 85733-3476 U.S.A. Tel/Fax: (520) 323-7636

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