5.13 Hiding the
When Mary Magdalene and Mary the Mother of Jesus saw
Jesus (pbut) after the alleged crucifixion and resurrection,
he was wearing gardener's clothing (John 20:15). What was
the significance of Jesus wearing gardener's clothing (as
opposed to normal clothing)? Was it meant to be a disguise?
If so, for what purpose?
Why were the women who visited the tomb terrified (Mark
16:8)? If Jesus (pbuh) had indeed foretold of his death and
resurrection then should they not be overjoyed to see the
alleged confirmation of this prophesy? What did they have to
be terrified of if Jesus' prophesy to them was being
fulfilled before their very eyes? Should they not be
ecstatic? Should they not be overjoyed? Did Jesus not
publicly challenge the Jews that he would die and be
resurrected after three days? (section 5.10 of this book).
Should the two women not have been expecting his
resurrection? Should they not have been awaiting it with the
If Jesus could conquer death and rise from the dead, why
did he fear seeing the Jews after the crucifixion?
Particularly as death had no more power over him?
"Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth
no more; death hath no more dominion over him."
Why disguise himself, hide from the Jews and Romans, and
appear only to the disciples? Surely, this was the great
manifestation of his power and the fulfillment of the
purpose of his creation according to the Church. What was
the purpose in keeping it all a secret now? Are we not told
in the Bible that Jesus (pbuh) told the Jews that they shall
receive no sign except the "three days and three nights"
sign? (Matthew 12:38-40) Are we not told that this would be
his greatest sign to them? If all of this was true, and he
had overcome death, and the Jews could no longer kill him,
why did he not go marching with all of the disciples into
the middle of town and shout at the top of his lungs to the
Jews: "Here is the verification of my greatest challenge to
you, come and see for yourselves"? Why issue the challenge
if he is not willing to show up and prove his truthfulness
to those he has challenged? Why show himself only to those
who didn't need to be convinced? Why not show himself to
those who disbelieved so that they might recognize their
error and be saved eternally?
The Church fathers have struggled with this conundrum for
centuries in an effort to make sense of it. Their
explanations however have all been based on mere conjecture
or strange and illogical interpretations. For example, the
third century Church father Origen (185-254AD) comments
"Christ avoided the judge who condemned him, and his
enemies, that they might not be smitten with blindness."
Life of Jesus, David Strauss, p. 738
Others have suggested that Jesus did not show himself to
those he had challenged because that would have compelled
them to believe!? or because they would not have believed
even had they seen him so there was no use trying? (i.e.
What about all of the "neutral" onlookers who would have
believed had he publicly shown himself to the Jews as he had
promised?). All of these attempts have been doomed to
failure since they have all avoided addressing the actual
cause of this problem. Specifically, that someone's fingers
have been tampering with the text. ...Something to think
On the other hand if, Jesus (pbuh) was a human being who
was not crucified but had been protected by God from the
hands of the Jews, and if his ministry were about to come to
an end, and if he needed to see his disciples one last time
and deliver one last parting sermon to them, and the Jews
were eager to kill him at the first sign of his presence,
then it would be completely logical for him to disguise
himself and stay out of the public eye. What reason can
there be for him to so severely stifle and hide his greatest
miracle and challenge to the Jews and the most powerful
confirmation of his mission and his prophesies if he had
truly said these things and they were not later additions of
unscrupulous tampering fingers?